Chapter 1 Problem 6

Recall that two atlases yield the same smooth structure if and only if their union is a smooth atlas.

Suppose \(\mathcal{A}\) is an atlas, yielding smooth structure \(\overline{\mathcal{A}}\). Pick \((U, \phi) \in \mathcal{A}\). Suppose without loss of generality that \(\phi : U \rightarrow \widehat{U} \subset \mathbb{B}^{n}\): the $n$-ball. Define \(F_s(x) = |x|^{s - 1} x\) as a map from \(\mathbb{B}^{n}\) to \(\mathbb{B}^{n}\).

Our strategy will be to show that \(F_s \circ \phi\) is a valid local homeomorphism, but that \(F_s\) is not a diffeomorphism. Thus, letting \(\mathcal{A}_s\) consist of all \((U, F_s \circ \phi)\) will be a smooth atlas, but \(\mathcal{A}_{s'} \cup \mathcal{A}_s\) is not for \(s' \neq s\), as

\[(F_s \circ \phi) \circ (\phi^{-1} \circ F_{s'}^{-1}) = F_s \circ F_{s'}^{-1} = |x|^{s - s'} x\]

is not a smooth map. We then note that there are an uncountable number of \(\mathcal{A}_s\) for \(s \in \mathbb{R}^{+}\), defining an uncountable number of distinct smooth structures, \(\overline{\mathcal{A}_s}\).


It is simple to demonstrate that \(F_s(x)\) is a homeomorphism, it is clearly continuous as its component functions are continuous. Moreover, it is obviously bijective, as it has a well-defined inverse \(F_s^{-1}(x) = |x|^{\frac{1 - s}{s}} x\) for \(x \neq 0\) and \(F_s^{-1}(0) = 0\).

Finally, the inverse is continuous everywhere for \(x \neq 0\), as the components are, and at \(0\), note that \(|F_s^{-1}(x)| = |x|^{1/s}\), so \(F_s^{-1}(B_{\epsilon^s}(0)) \subset B_{\epsilon}(0)\) for any \(\epsilon > 0\), and we have continuity at \(0\).


This function is not a diffeomorphism, however, because \(F_s^{-1}(x)\) is not everywhere-differentiable for \(s \neq 1\). In particular, recall \(|F_s^{-1}(x)| = |x|^{1/s}\). If the function were differentiable, there would exist linear \(L\) such that \(|F_s^{-1}(h) - L h|/|h|\) goes to \(0\) for \(h \to 0\), but alas this will always blow-up.

Author: Jack Ceroni

Created: 2023-08-24 Thu 15:49

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